Primer Question 12. A 70-year-old man with a history of coronary heart disease presents to the ER after two episodes of vomiting “coffee-ground” material and an episode of melena. He has no known history of peptic ulcer. Current medicines include low-dose aspirin, rosuvastatin and atenolol. On examination, heart rate is 90 / min with regular rhythm; supine BP is 124 / 72 with no orthostatic change. Abdominal exam is unremarkable; rectal exam confirms the presence of melena. Hemoglobin level shortly after arrival at the ER was 9.0 g/dl. Coagulation studies were normal. Apart from starting an intravenous line, administering IV crystalloid, and monitoring his blood count, what is the best next step (s) in management?
Incorrect. The correct answer is 3. Although the patient has a history of cardiovascular disease, he is not in shock and has no evidence of profuse / active bleeding. His baseline hemoglobin of 9 is probably adequate and does not indicate an immediate need for transfusion. Therefore, options 2 and 4 are incorrect. He appears to be fairly stable. There is no obvious need for an urgent EGD, so option 1 is not correct. EGD should be performed within 24 hours of presentation, so scheduling it for the following morning seems appropriate. That makes option 3 the best choice. IV PPI treatment can be started; oral PPI treatment is inappropriate in this situation as the patient will presumably be having EGD at some time. As an aside, this 70-year-old man should have been on oral PPI treatment at home given his age, his cardiovascular comorbidity and his (appropriate) use of low-dose aspirin.
Ref:Laine et al, Updated ACG guideline on upper GI and ulcer bleeding. Am J Gastroenterol 2021; 116: 899 – 917
Ref:Mullady et al, AGA Clinical Practice Update on endoscopic treatment of non-variceal upper GI bleeding. Gastroenterology 2020; 159: 1120 – 1128
Correct. Although the patient has a history of cardiovascular disease, he is not in shock and has no evidence of profuse / active bleeding. His baseline hemoglobin of 9 is probably adequate and does not indicate an immediate need for transfusion. Therefore, options 2 and 4 are incorrect. He appears to be fairly stable. There is no obvious need for an urgent EGD, so option 1 is not correct. EGD should be performed within 24 hours of presentation, so scheduling it for the following morning seems appropriate. That makes option 3 the best choice. IV PPI treatment can be started; oral PPI treatment is inappropriate in this situation as the patient will presumably be having EGD at some time. As an aside, this 70-year-old man should have been on oral PPI treatment at home given his age, his cardiovascular comorbidity and his (appropriate) use of low-dose aspirin.
Ref:Laine et al, Updated ACG guideline on upper GI and ulcer bleeding. Am J Gastroenterol 2021; 116: 899 – 917
Ref:Mullady et al, AGA Clinical Practice Update on endoscopic treatment of non-variceal upper GI bleeding. Gastroenterology 2020; 159: 1120 – 1128